Most Commonly Asked Bible Questions
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How do I know that the Bible is from God and not the Koran or the Book Of Mormon?
Speaking of where everyone came from, where did Cain get his wife?
If everyone came from Noah and his sons, how did we get all the different races of people on the earth?
What evidence is there of a world-wide flood?
How could all the animals get on the ark?
Why were people living so long before the flood? Were those literal years?
What about dinosaurs? Why aren't they mentioned in the Bible?
What about the fossils that have been found? Don't these prove evolution?
If we love Him and are sincere it doesn't matter if we do everything exactly the way the Bible says.
I don't understand 'God.' Is there one God or three?
You have pointed to some things that seem to give problems to evolutionists, but what evidence can you give in favor of special creation?
Every Bible I pick up reads differently. There are just so many 'interpretations' that I can't believe we can trust any of it.
The Bible was taken from hand written copies, much of which are only fragments. How can we trust that what we have is accurate?
Each Bible writer had a different style which proves that God gave each writer general thoughts, but they wrote in their own words.
The Bible is a good book, but after all, it was only written by men.
I work for a liquor company driving a truck and selling liquor to retail outlets. Do I have to quit my job in order to become a Christian?
My boyfriend and I are really in love and plan on marrying soon. If we say our vows privately to each other, can we begin sexual relations?
I was a faithful member of a denominational church for many years. At a time of weakness I left my husband for another man.
I left the Lord and my spouse many years ago and lived a life of sin. I remarried about five years ago and have two children by my second marriage.
How can the Bible say that God created everything in six days when science has proven the earth to be billions of years old?
Are there degrees of punishment in hell?
I realize that God was strict in the Old Testament and even struck people dead, but now through Christ, God is far more lenient.
We are no longer under law, but under grace (Romans 6:14), and therefore we now have freedom in Christ (Galatians 5:1).
You speak of having to obey God on the basis of "commands, examples, and necessary inferences."
I may not being doing what the Bible says, but you are not suppose to judge me.
How could a merciful God possibly cast people into hell?
Prove to me that hell is really forever.
Do we go to heaven or hell as soon as we die?
After we die, do we have to wait until Judgment Day before we will be with the Lord?
Why can't you see that evolution is at least possible?
Will we know each other in heaven?
What about Genesis 9:20-27? Why did Noah curse Canaan for something that Ham did?
What is the rapture and where is this found in the Bible?
Isn't there suppose to be a great tribulation that is to come prior to Christ's return?
Isn't there suppose to be a 1000 year reign of peace and prosperity with Christ reigning on a throne in Jerusalem?
I know that some teach that only 144,000 are going to heaven and the rest will stay on the earth. Is this true?
Explain the doctrine of Dispensational Premillennialism:
What are the scriptures that would prove that the Lord's kingdom is not a physical kingdom but a spiritual?
Explain key "premillennial passages" such as Daniel 2:36-45 and Daniel 9:24-27.
I believe that the homosexuality condemned in the Bible is only of the type condemned in Sodom and Gomorrah.
After death, will we be conscious?
Jesus said in Matthew 5:17-19 that He did not come to destroy the law.
Homosexuality is only condemned in the Bible when it is practiced by heterosexuals.
Is it necessary to be a member of a local church in order to be saved?
Do I have to attend every service? Aren't Sunday's the only requirement by the Lord?
Is it scriptural for the church to give money to people who are in need who are not Christians?
Is it scriptural for various local churches to send their money to one central church who in turn uses that money?
Are there any circumstances in which it is scriptural for one church to send money to another church?
Weren't the 10 commandments as well as the Sabbath command given to Adam and Eve in the Garden (Genesis 2:2-3; 26:5)?
Everyone is supposed to keep the Sabbath Day because the Lord worked six days and rested the seventh (Exodus 20:11).
Most all the churches are going to heaven, they are just taking a different path to get there.
Even Jesus and Paul kept the Sabbath (Mark 2:28; Acts 18:4).
Do you believe that the "Church Of Christ" is the only church going to heaven?
Jesus told His disciples to pray that the siege of Jerusalem did not come on the Sabbath making it impossible to flee without breaking the Sabbath.
Jeremiah 31:34, what is meant by, 'No more shall every man teach is neighbor, and every man his brother, saying 'Know the Lord,'...?
From Hebrews 8:7, what was the fault with the first covenant? How could God make a "faulty" covenant?
From Hebrews 8:13, what is meant by the statement that the first covenant 'is ready to vanish away'?
How could God say, "Thou shalt not kill," but then command the Israelites to kill those who did?
How could God be so cruel as to have all the children in the land of Canaan killed?
How can a perfect God allow all the suffering that goes on in the world?
The Catholic Bible adds books to the Old Testament that they claim are also inspired. Which books are inspired and which are not?
I understand that the New Testament tells us that the Law was done away, but the Law refers only to the ceremonial laws, not the ten commandments.
If I fall away after I am baptized, do I need to be baptized again?
A final thought that pertains to this general category.
Does God really condemn homosexuality?
I believe it is important to baptize babies since we are all born in sin (Psalm 51:5)
Immersion for baptism is fine, but I do not see that baptism cannot be done other ways.
John 3:16, Romans 10:9-10 and Acts 16:31 plainly tell us that all a person has to do is believe in order to be saved.
If we are saved by baptism that would mean we are saved by works, and we know that we are not saved by works (Ephesians 2:8-9).
I was saved when I believed. Baptism is only an "outward sign" that my sins are already forgiven. That is what Peter meant in Acts 2:38.
Holy Spirit baptism is what saves. That is evident by the example of Cornelius and his household (Acts 10:44-46).
Explain to me what the church is?
Being baptized a second time feels like it would be wrong, like denying my initial turn to the Lord.
Homosexuality is not sinful because God made us homosexual just like He made some people heterosexual.
I knew I was saved when I prayed and felt Jesus come into my heart (Revelation 3:20).
God wouldn't condemn a person who was sincere but just didn't know any better!
I can't believe that God would let so many people be lost!
What about my mother/father? They died without doing these things and if what you say is true, they are lost!
Surely God will save good moral people!
Why are there so many different interpretations of the Bible? It seems that everyone thinks they are right.
Can we really expect to understand the Bible alike?
How did all these denominations get started and how were they able to deceive so many people?
Paul never mentions water baptism, but salvation by Holy Spirit baptism.
Q: How do I know that the Bible is from God and not the Koran or the Book Of Mormon? As we have already observed, the New Testament was written on the basis of eye-witness accounts. Over 4,000 times the Bible claims to be inspired and it repeatedly claims that inspiration to be verbal. The Bible words were confirmed by miracles performed by both Jesus and the apostles and believed by both believer and unbeliever (John 11:47). The Bible is unique in its continuity, its lack of contradiction, its brevity, its honesty about the failings of its major characters, and its prophecies. Dudley Ross Spears writes, "The Koran was collected into book form after Muhammad died. Since he is described as practically illiterate, he wrote not one word of the book. It was compiled by his close companion, Abu Bakr. Abu Bakr became the much disputed first Caliph (successor to Muhammad). Bakr found scraps of Muhammad's thoughts written on palm leaves, white stones, and even bones. The majority of it came from the memory of those who had committed the prophet's words to their own memory...The proof that the Koran is a revelation from God is nothing more than human testimony. Muhammad did not claim to work miracles, or have any supernatural powers. The only basis for believing the Koran is a divinely inspired book is the testimony of an ex-shepherd boy who claimed that the angel Gabriel appeared to him to reveal the Koran as the last of all of divine revelations. The same arguments against such pseudo-revelations as The Book Of Mormon, Science and Health with Key to the Scriptures, and The Watchtower Bible and Tract Society can be made against the Koran. It is nothing more than a collection of sayings that have no real continuity, theme, or organization. It falls into the same class as all subjective claims that God speaks to certain people in various ways." (Gospel Anchor, June, 1991, page 10 and July 1991, page 11). It is important to note that the Koran accepts the revelations given to Moses in the Pentateuch, to David in the Psalms, to Jesus in the Gospels, and to Mohammed in the Koran. This is a contradiction of what Jesus said in the gospels. Jesus placed His seal upon all the Old Testament (Luke 24:44), and upon the apostles writings of the New Testament, even stating that they would be given all truth (John 16:13). The apostles later wrote, "But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed" (Galatians 1:8). Further, the apostles claimed that their writings were complete and therefore not to be added to (Jude 3; II Peter 1:3; Revelation 22:18-19). The most glaring contradiction is the fact that the Koran accepts Jesus words in the gospels, and yet Jesus in the gospels claims to be the Son of God and equal with God (John 10:30-36; 11:27), which is denied by the Koran. Concerning the Book Of Mormon, suffice it to say that the Book of Mormon actually denies that it is inspired of God (I Nephi 1:3; 19:6; Jacob 1:2; 7:26; 3 Nephi 8:2; Ether 5:1; Mormon 9:32). Q: Speaking of where everyone came from, where did Cain get his wife? This question is often asked in order to argue that there may have already been a race of people on the earth before God created Adam and Eve. In the days of slavery and prejudice some used this as an argument for the origin of the black races. Others have used it to imply evolution having already taken place on the earth or even that Satan had created a race of people. The matter is settled with three simple facts:
This, however, was not a problem for two reasons:
Q: If everyone came from Noah and his sons, how did we get all the different races of people on the earth? The answer to this question is simply a matter of understanding a little about genetics. There is a tremendous potential for variation within the children of just one human couple. Evolutionist Francisco Ayala calculates that a single human couple could produce 102,017 children before they would have to produce an identical twin. The number of atoms in the known universe is a mere 1080, nothing at all compared with the variety that is present in just two human beings. In fact, it would take only one generation to get all the variations of skin color that we see among people today. If two parents with medium skin color (possessing recessive genes of both black and white), had sixteen children, on the average one child would be completely black with no capability of passing on any "white" genes. One child would be completely white with no capability of passing on any "black" genes. Four children would be medium black, four medium white, and six children (less than half) would be the same color as their parents. God placed in Adam and Eve and ultimately in Noah's sons and their wives, all the genetic capabilities to produce the variation in human beings that we see in our world today (CREATION: THE FACTS OF LIFE, by Gary Parker, page 77-79) After the Flood and the incident at the tower of Babel, people scattered over the face of the earth according to their languages. Continual marrying and producing children within their group eventually produced dominant characteristics that became the various races of people in the world (See Genesis 10). Q: What evidence is there of a world-wide flood? The amount of evidences for the Flood are overwhelming and I would again refer the reader to THE GENESIS FLOOD by Henry Morris as well as THE WORLD THAT PERISHED by John C. Whitcomb. Some of the evidences to consider are as follows:
Q: How could all the animals get on the ark? In Henry Morris' book THE GENESIS RECORD, page 185, he notes that there were about 36,000 species of animals on the earth at the time of the Flood. This would mean no more than 75,000 species of animals on the ark when the extra "clean" animals are included. The capacity of the ark would equal 522 train stock cars, whereas 75,000 animals would only fill about 300 stock cars and thus be filled to about 60% of its capacity. The ark had more than enough room to carry all the animals required to replenish the earth. Remember also, Noah would not have brought full-size animals on to the ark nor would ALL of these species needed to go on the ark. A few more basic "kinds" would have sufficed to produce the variation we have in existence today. Q: Why were people living so long before the flood? Were those literal years? Again, the years were certainly literal because there is nothing in the context of Genesis to indicate that the writer was speaking figuratively. And, since Moses was writing (Luke 24:44), he wrote with the same years in mind that were taking place in his day (he lived to 120 years). The question of why people lived so long before the flood can only be answered by gathering the facts we know from the Bible and then theorizing the most logical explanation. Consider the following:
Q: What about dinosaurs? Why aren't they mentioned in the Bible? Scientists say dinosaurs predate man which would contradict the Bible. How could a dinosaur have been carried on the ark? In the first place, there is no logical reason for scientists to date dinosaurs before man. They do so simply because of their evolutionary model and a presupposition that dinosaurs and man could not have cohabited. In fact, tracks of dinosaur and human footprints have been found in the Puluxy River bed in south Texas fossilized in stone. These tracks actually cross providing strong evidence for the co-existence of dinosaur and human. Further, the Bible certainly includes dinosaurs when it speaks of the creation of all animals in Genesis 1:25 and again when the animals were taken into the ark (Genesis 7:2). Job gave descriptions of two animals that are unlike anything we have ever seen today. The descriptions of Behemoth (Job 40:15-24) and Leviathan (Job 41) are as dinosaur-like as one could get. Remember, that about 18,000 species of animals have become extinct since the flood (that is, there are over 18,000 species of animals in the fossil record that are not alive today). It is therefore not surprising that a few dinosaurs became extinct along with so many others. By the way, travel to the zoo and go to the reptile section and see if you don't see some animals that would be considered dinosaurs if they were found as fossils instead of alive! Q: What about the fossils that have been found? Don't these prove evolution? "The fossil record has been a source of great misinformation over the years. Practically every evolutionist would like you to believe that there are hundreds of "transitional forms" found among the fossils that indicate a gradual evolution of life. Actually, just the opposite is true. The fossil record displays that same distinct life categories as what we see in the animal world around us. "Fifty million" year-old bats are still bats! Even Darwin himself understood that the fossil record was the most serious objection to his theory. In his chapter entitled, "On The Imperfection Of The Geologic Record", he writes, "...intermediate links? Geology assuredly does not reveal any such finely graduated organic change, and this is perhaps the most obvious and serious objection which can be urged against the theory." Now more than 120 years later, nothing has changed. David Raup, a leading evolutionist and curator of the famous Field Museum of Natural History in Chicago, which houses 20% of all fossil species known, writes in his 1979 article entitled "Conflicts Between Darwin and Paleontology", "Most people assume that fossils provide a very important history of life. Unfortunately, this is not strictly true...Well, we are now about 120 years after Darwin, and knowledge of the fossil record has been greatly expanded...Ironically we have even fewer examples of evolutionary transition than we had in Darwin's time. By this I mean that some of the classic cases of Darwinian change in the fossil record, such as the evolution of the horse in North America, have had to be discarded or modified as a result of more detailed information." If this man in his position can see less transitional evidence than Darwin, the fossil record does not provide evidence for evolution. {Quotes taken from THE FACTS OF LIFE by Gary Parker, page 94-95) Q: I can't believe God is a picky as you make Him out to be. If we love Him and are sincere it doesn't matter if we do everything exactly the way the Bible says. In John 14:15 Jesus said, "If you love me, keep my commandments." Again in 1 John 2:3-4 John said, "Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. He who says, 'I know Him,' and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him." And in Hebrews 5:9 we are told that Jesus is "the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him." The bottom line is that God has never counted His people as "sincere" if they willfully refuse to obey Him. In Leviticus 10:1-3 Nadab and Abihu were killed by fire from God because they offered a different kind of fire than God had commanded. How picky is that? In II Samuel 6:1-7 Uzzah was killed when he took hold of the ark of the covenant as he was trying to keep it from falling when the oxen pulling the cart stumbled. Uzzah's sincerity and good intentions did not save him from being killed when he touched the ark. Consider also that Jesus warned the apostles in John 16:2, "...the time is coming that whoever kills you will think that he offers God service." Sincerity certainly did not excuse a person who was murdering one of the apostles. Paul stated in Acts 23:1 "I have lived in all good conscience before God until this day." Though Paul had lived in all good conscience, he still counted himself as "the chief of sinners" (I Timothy 1:15) and a "blasphemer, a persecutor, and an insolent man" (I Timothy 1:13). Sincerity and love for God simply does not excuse a person's disobedience. By the way, when Jesus condemned the Jews in Matthew 23:23 for tithing mint, anise and cummin, but neglecting the weightier matters of the law, He stated at the end of this verse, "These you ought to have done, without leaving the others undone." Jesus, therefore, did not tell them to stop tithing these small herbs. In fact, He told them to continue with the tithe, while not neglecting the weightier matters of the law. Therefore, Jesus was not condemning strict adherence to the law, but warning that we not neglect the true meaning and spirit behind the Lord's commands. Q: I don't understand 'God.' Is there one God or three? "This question arises from the common misunderstanding of what the Bible means when it states that there is "one God" (Deuteronomy 6:4). The word "God" is a family name or description telling us that there is one deity. In fact, the Hebrew for God is ELOHIM (Genesis 1:1) which is a collective noun indicating a plural word with a singular meaning. It is like the words, flock, herd, family, or church. All of these words indicate singular entities, but there are more than one individual in each that makes up the whole. In fact, none of these collective nouns could exist if there were not more than one individual that were are part of them. You cannot have a herd if you own only one cow. Neither can God refer to Himself as Elohim and there be only one individual that is God. The evidence for this plurality is also obvious in our English translations:
It is further evident that there are three individuals that make up the God family (Elohim) and were involved in creating the heavens and earth:
Evidence for this plurality is also indicated a number of times in the New Testament:
Q: You have pointed to some things that seem to give problems to evolutionists, but what evidence can you give in favor of special creation? Consider the MARVELOUS FIT OF ORGANISMS TO THEIR ENVIRONMENT. For example, consider the many large fish with sharp teeth that feed on shrimp and smaller fish. Their mouths begin to accumulate food debris and parasites. How is such a fish going to clean its teeth? The answer is a visit to the local cleaning station where there are certain shrimp and small brightly colored fish. After eating, a predatory fish will literally swim over and take his place in line to have his teeth cleaned. It opens it mouth, baring vicious teeth and allows the little cleaner fish to swim in its mouth and through the gills picking off parasites in the soft tissues of the mouth. And when the cleaning is done the big fish does not eat the cleaner fish but allows it to escape. Then the big fish swims off hunting for other little fish and shrimp to eat. But how could this cleaning symbiosis have evolved? Evolutionist and Nobel Prize Winner Albert Szent-Gyorgi writes the following about mutualism among living things: "All this may sound very simple, but it involves a whole series of most complicated chain reactions with a horrible complex underlying nervous mechanism..." "All this had to be developed simultaneously." In commenting on Szent-Gyorgi's observations, Dr. Gary Parker writes, "It's the same thing for cleaning symbiosis; it's no good if the little fish gets the idea to go into the big fish's mouth before the big fish inherits the final random mutational change to let it back out again." Szent-Gyorgi continues that he odds of getting all these random favorable mutations to happen at the same time is...ZERO. He says it just can't come about by time and chance and the natural process of mutation. Instead, he postulates "syntropy" or basically an impersonal creative force. He recognizes creation can be logically deduced but denies the Creator. (CREATION: THE FACTS OF LIFE, page 35). There are many other similar examples such as the Nile crocodile that will open its mouth for the Egyptian Plover to walk in and pick off the parasites. The Yucca moth that lays it eggs in the seed chamber of a yucca plant providing not only food for its young, but the only means of the yucca plant pollinating itself. Consider also the Bombardier Beetle. The following story is told by Dr. Duane Gish (FROM FISH TO GISH, page 145-146): THAT MEAN OL' BEETLE-EATER "Although he looks like an ordinary beetle, he is really a very unusual beetle. When some mean ol' beetle-eater comes and threatens to eat him, BOOM! --an explosion goes off right in the face of this mean ol' beetle-eater."It turns out that this beetle mixes hydrogen peroxide and hydrogen quinone and puts it in a storage chamber. The remarkable thing about this is that it is a very explosive mixture. It would blow up if I did it in the laboratory. But the beetle adds an inhibitor. When the mean ol' beetle-eater comes up, he squirts this solution into twin combustion tubes. At just the right moment, he adds an anti-inhibitor which neutralizes the inhibitor. BOOM! An explosion takes place. Noxious gases are expelled at 212 degrees Fahrenheit right in the face of the mean ol' beetle-eater. That's enough to discourage any mean ol' beetle-eater! "Let us imagine how this might have happened by evolution. Millions of years ago, there was a little beetle. Let's call him 'Beetle Bailey.' How he got a storage chamber, I do not know. One day he decided to throw in some hydrogen peroxide and hydrogen quinone. BOOM! He blew himself up. You see, he didn't have the inhibitor. But why would he evolve the inhibitor until he had the two chemicals? He would have no use for it. It would have no evolutionary adaptive value. But if he had the two chemicals first, it's too late! He's already blown himself up. BOOM! BOOM! BOOM! For thousands of generations little beetles are blowing themselves up. They can't pass the information down to their offspring because they didn't have any offspring. There is no way that evolution could work that out. Let's suppose that by some miracle some little beetle gets the inhibitor. You say, 'That's tremendous!' No, absolutely not. What good would it do? It would just soak and sour and corrode his innards. It would do no good. He still doesn't have the anti-inhibitor. Why would he invent the anti-inhibitor until he had the inhibitor to begin with? But why would he invent the two chemicals and the inhibitor first? It does no good. There is no evolutionary rationale for it. "Let us suppose that finally, by some miracle, some little beetle invents the anti-inhibitor. You say, 'We have arrived.' No, he doesn't have the twin combustion tubes yet. He adds the anti-inhibitor and BOOM! He blows himself up again. There would be no evolutionary advantage to invent the anti-inhibitor without the other chemicals. but if he invents it with the other chemicals, he blows up. BOOM! BOOM! BOOM! Again, for thousands of generations little beetles are blowing themselves up. They don't have those twin combustion tubes which are incredibly complex. An amazing genetic apparatus is needed to evolve those twin combustion tubes. Why would they need the twin combustion tubes until they had the two chemicals, the inhibitor, and the anti-inhibitor? But they would have no use for the other until they had the twin combustion tubes. You have to have it all together. "Let's assume that by a tremendous miracle of evolutionary mutations or mistakes that some little beetle evolved the twin combustion tubes. 'Now,' you say, 'we finally are there!' "No, not quite. He doesn't have the communication network. He doesn't have the signal worked out. Can you imagine how embarrassing it would be if his friend, Joe Beetle, comes up, pats him on the back and says, 'Hi, Friend!' BOOM! He will lose a lot of friends that way. "But, why would he need the communication network and the signal until he had everything else? But everything else without the network does him no good either. You see, you have to have everything complete. You must have the storage chamber, the two chemicals, the inhibitor, the anti-inhibitor, the twin combustion tubes, and the communication network. Then and only then will you have a bombardier beetle. Up until that time you have nothing but disaster. You have no way of getting from one to the other. You must remain little old 'Beetle Bailey.' Mean ol' beetle-eaters should be enthusiastic for evolution. It is because of creation that those mean ol' beetle-eaters are not able to eat more bombardier beetles." (FROM FISH TO GISH, page 145-147) THE FLICKER WOODPECKER "Here's a bird that makes its living banging its head into trees. Whatever gave it the idea to do that in the first place? Was it frustration from losing the worm to the early bird? How did banging its head into trees increase its likelihood for survival--until after it had accumulated (by chance?) a thick skull with shock absorbing tissues, muscles, etc.! And what would be the survival value of all these features (and how could they build up in the population) until after the bird started banging it head into trees? And what about the beetle under the bark? The beetle is surely aware of all the woodpecker's pounding. So, while the woodpecker is pounding, the beetle is crawling further down its hole or digging another hole. So, before any of the drilling adaptations can have any fitness, the woodpecker must have a long, sticky tongue to reach what it somehow knows is good food under that tough tree bark. But if you have a long, sticky tongue and you're a bird, where do you put the long tongue? For the woodpecker, the answer is to wrap its tongue under the skin and bring it clear around the head and insert it in the right nostril! Now, if you start as an ordinary bird with a short tongue and no tongue sheath, what would you do in the intermediate states--perhaps, for example, with a tongue too long for the bill but too short to catch the beetles you've just been beating your head into trees to catch?" (CREATION: THE FACTS OF LIFE, page 51). Further, think of this bird in the intermediate stages of developing each of these traits. Before he develops a thick skull with shock-absorbing tissues, he will immediately give himself severe brain damage the first time he bangs his beak into a tree, not to mention what would happen to his beak! Q: Every Bible I pick up reads differently. There are just so many 'interpretations' that I can't believe we can trust any of it. Usually when a person asks this question using the word "interpretations," they are referring to translations. Oftentimes they have heard the Bible from different translations such as King James, New American Standard, New King James, or New International Version. What many do not understand is that the main difference between different versions of the scriptures is the time period in which they were translated. Since the King James Version was translated in 1611, it uses the English of 1611. Many of the words used in 1611 have an entirely different meaning than they do today. An example of this would be Hebrews 13:5 "Let your conversation be free of covetousness." But in 1611 the word "conversation" referred to one's conduct or manner of life, not one's speech. Therefore, in the New King James Version, translated in 1979, the verse reads, "Let your conduct be free of covetousness." The same is true with the King James word "prevent" in I Thessalonians 4:15. In 1611 the word actually meant "precede" and is thus translated in the newer versions. Therefore, the main difference between translations is simply the English that was used at the time of the translation along with the translator's choice of words that would best translate the Greek or Hebrew words. There are some minor differences that occur when different versions place more weight on some manuscripts than upon others. These differences are minute and never affect any doctrinal point. It should also be noted that some "translations" are not translations at all, but paraphrases. Among these would be the Living Bible and the Reader's Digest Bible. The Living Bible is simply the result of a man writing the Bible in his own words. It is a commentary, not a translation. The New International Version was produced by a group of translators who tried to translate the original thought instead of the original word. As a result, there are places where their theology shines through. Instead of the various translations being a confusion (since their messages are virtually the same), this variety allows us to better confirm the Bible message. The different versions act as checks and balances so that no one group of translators would be able to purposely change something in scripture and escape notice. The New World Translation produced by the Watchtower Society of the Jehovah's Witnesses has purposely changed certain parts of their version. But these are immediately detectable when compared with any other accepted translation. Q: The Bible was taken from hand written copies, much of which are only fragments. How can we trust that what we have is accurate? The Bible was taken from hand written copies, much of which are only fragments. How can we trust that what we have is accurate? Because there are over 14,000 manuscript copies of the New Testament we can be absolutely confident of its accuracy. With this large number of manuscripts, comparing manuscripts easily reveals any place where a scribe has made an error or where there is a variation. There are approximately 150,000 variations in the manuscripts we have today. However, these variations represent only 10,000 places in the New Testament (if the same word was misspelled in 3,000 manuscripts, that is counted as 3,000 variations). Of these 10,000 places, all but 400 are questions of spelling in accord with accepted usage, grammatical construction, or order of words. Of the 400 remaining variations, only 50 are of any significance (such as two manuscripts leaving out Acts 2:37). But of these 50, not one alters even one article of faith which cannot be abundantly sustained by other undoubted passages. Further, there are some manuscripts that date as early as 130 AD, very close to the completion of the New Testament. These manuscripts are nearly identical to those dating 900 years later, thus verifying the accuracy of the scribes. Besides this, Jesus promised that His words would not pass away (Matthew 24:35). Q: Each Bible writer had a different style which proves that God gave each writer general thoughts, but they wrote in their own words. Each Bible writer had a different style which proves that God gave each writer general thoughts, but they wrote in their own words. {IMPLICATION: We do not have to follow the Bible strictly.} While it is true that each Bible writer had his own style, it does not follow that they wrote in their own words. God revealed His words using the style of each human author. This is shown in a number of places. In I Corinthians 2:12-13, Paul states that the words that he and the other apostles spoke and revealed were "words" taught them by the Holy Spirit. In II Peter 1:20-21 Peter tells us that no scripture is of any private interpretation. The word "interpretation" refers to how the scriptures were disclosed or revealed to man. These prophets did not reveal God's message by any private manipulation of their own, because they did not speak of their "own will", but spoke as they were "moved" by the Holy Spirit. In Matthew 4:4 Jesus told Satan that man does not live by bread alone but by "every word that proceeds from the mouth of the God." In fact, in Matthew 22:32 Jesus quoted Exodus 3:6 and argued the resurrection from the present tense of "I am the God of Abraham..." Jesus could not have argued from the verb tense if the very words of scripture were not inspired. Again, in Galatians 3:16 Paul argued that salvation came through Christ and not all Israel by emphasizing the singular form of "seed." "Through your seed all nations shall be blessed" not through your "seeds." Other scriptures that pertain: Proverbs 30:5-6; Revelation 22:18-19. Q: The Bible is a good book, but after all, it was only written by men. Certainly it is true that the Bible was not written with the actual "finger of God." Men used pen and ink to write the scriptures. However, the Bible claims to be inspired. That is, men wrote as "they were moved by the Holy Spirit" (II Peter 1:21). David said, "The Spirit of the Lord spoke by me, and His word was on my tongue" (II Samuel 23:2). Isaiah said, "The word that Isaiah the son of Amos saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem" (Isaiah 2:1). Paul said, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God..." (II Timothy 3:16). In fact, the scriptures claim to be the words of God over 4,000 times. Now if this book has lied over 4,000 times concerning its origin, and yet it still demands us to obey it or be lost in an eternal hell, there is nothing "good" about this book. If it is "only written by men" it is worst book the world has known. Q: I work for a liquor company driving a truck and selling liquor to retail outlets. Do I have to quit my job in order to become a Christian? Anything a person is practicing that involved sinful activity must be ceased when they become a Christian. It may be one thing for a person to work as a clerk in a supermarket that sells alcoholic beverages, but to be a salesman in the employ of a liquor company and therefore in the position of promoting the sale of that which is sinful before God is wrong. Paul gives the principle in II Corinthians 6:14-17: "Do not be unequally yoked together with unbelievers..." Again, Paul states in I Corinthians 10:21: "You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and the cup of demons; you cannot partake of the Lord's table and the table of demons." In II John 9-11 we are told that we cannot even bid God speed to a false teaching without participating in his evil deeds. Working for a liquor company would certainly be promoting evil. Q: My boyfriend and I are really in love and plan on marrying soon. If we say our vows privately to each other, can we begin sexual relations? If this couple plans on marrying soon, they are admitting that saying their vows privately is not getting married. If the law of the land (that is, even the heathen) does not recognize this as marriage, God certainly doesn't. This is fornication and it not only is against God's law, it cheapens the commitment of marriage. Q: I was a faithful member of a denominational church for many years. At a time of weakness I left my husband for another man. I have now been married to this man for ten years. I want to become a Christian. What must I do? The principles given in the answer to the former question also answer this person's condition. Many would like to argue that since this person was not a Christian, Christ's laws concerning divorce and remarriage do not apply. Remember, however, that Christ said His teaching was based on a law that was "from the beginning." Marriage, nor the laws concerning it, are "church" or "Christian" ordinances. They were given to Adam and Eve and all who descended from them. Consider also that when a Christian sins he must repent in order to be saved. The same command is given to the non-Christian. If repentance for the Christian who has divorced and remarried is separation in order to cease adultery, then repentance for the non-Christian is the same. Remember that both believer and unbeliever needs the blood of Christ in order to be saved. Is the blood of Christ so strong for the unbeliever coming to Christ that they need not separate from their adultery, but the same blood of Christ is not strong enough to save the Christian who remains with his or her unlawful mate? The law is the same for both believer and unbeliever. Neither can stay in sin and expect to be saved. Q: I left the Lord and my spouse many years ago and lived a life of sin. I remarried about five years ago and have two children by my second marriage. I now realize how wrong I was and would like to come back to the Lord. What do I have to do? The teaching of the Lord on the subject of divorce and remarriage is very straightforward in Matthew 19:3-12. I believe it is important when teaching any person who asks questions concerning this issue to simply turn to the text and read it. Here are some things the Lord plainly states in this text:
Q: How can the Bible say that God created everything in six days when science has proven the earth to be billions of years old? In the first place, this question as asked assumes that which has NOT been proven, namely, that the earth is billions of years old. On the other hand, it not surprising that evolutionists today believe in an old earth. If one starts with the presupposition that there is no God, an old earth is the only alternative. After all, the earth does appear to be very old. Consider the following:
Sometimes this question may be asked by a theistic evolutionist and thus there is a discussion as to whether the days of Genesis 1 & 2 are literal 24-hour days. Consider the following:
Q: Are there degrees of punishment in hell? This is a difficult question that the Bible may not give us a clear answer on. Consider two texts. In Matthew 11:20-24 Jesus condemns the cities of Chorazin, Bethsaida, and Capernaum because He had performed so many of His mighty works there and yet they had not repented. In condemning them He said, "It shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment than for you." It is hard to imagine anyone worse than those of Sodom, and yet judgment would be easier on them than on many of the people of Jesus day because those of Jesus' day had greater opportunity. Jesus expresses the same principle in Luke 12:47-48. Many stripes are given to the servant who knew the Master's will and yet did not prepare himself accordingly. But only a few stripes are given to the one who did not know yet committed deeds worthy of stripes. The question is, do these passages imply degrees of punishment in hell or a difference in how much mercy each will be shown in the judgment based on how much opportunity each were given? What we do know is, we have been given a great salvation and a great opportunity. God's word has been clearly revealed to us, and if we do not prepare it will be more tolerable in the day of judgment for Sodom than for us! Q: I realize that God was strict in the Old Testament and even struck people dead, but now through Christ, God is far more lenient. This statement suggests that God's character actually changed once Christ came offering grace through His blood. But Hebrews 13:8 states that Jesus Christ is "the same yesterday, today, and forever." God's character has not changed and neither has His offer of mercy to those who obey Him. Even under the Law, at the giving of the ten commandments God offered mercy to those who kept His commandments (Exodus 20:5-6). How was Abraham saved? According to Romans 4, he was saved by grace. How was David saved? According to Romans 4, though under the Law he was saved by grace. Of course, the grace that God offered in Old Testament times was dependent upon the offering of Christ even as His offer of grace in the New Testament. In Romans 11:22, after Paul cited the example of God cutting off Israel because of their disobedience, he said, "Therefore consider the goodness and severity of God..." Both the goodness of God in the Old Testament times as well as the severity of God in the Old Testament times, needs to be considered in New Testament times. Further, Hebrews 2:1-3 as well as Hebrews 10:26-31 and Hebrews 12:25-29, all tell us that the greater privileges and greater salvation of the New Testament, means that we also have a greater responsibility to righteousness and obedience. The principle is, if they did not escape who had God's word given through angels and Moses, we certainly will not escape who have the Word given through the Son of God. Q: Do not talk to me about "commandments" and "law." We are no longer under law, but under grace (Romans 6:14), and therefore we now have freedom in Christ (Galatians 5:1). The person who makes this statement is taking Romans 6:14 completely out of its context. Chapter six of Romans is actually teaching that grace demands that we cease sin! (Romans 6:1-2). Since grace has freed us from sin, we must no longer live in it. Romans 6:17-18 states that since we are no longer slaves to sin, we have now become slaves to righteousness. In Paul's discussion of law and grace in Romans 3, he states in verse 31, "Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law." It is foolish to say that once we are under grace we are no longer under any law. If we were no longer under a law we would not need grace, because where there is no law there is no sin (Romans 4:15). When Paul in Romans 6:14 states that we are not under law, he is referring to a system of law as opposed to a system of grace or faith. Under a system of law one would have to live perfectly in order to be saved (Romans 3:20; 4:1-4). Under such a system sin would have dominion over us because we would have no means of escaping it once we sinned. But sin does not have dominion over us under a system of faith/grace because our salvation is based on forgiveness not perfection. When we sin, we can turn to God in confession and faith and thus always be able to escape sin's power. However, such "good news" in no way gives us a license to sin. In fact, it is that very doctrine that Jude condemned in Jude 4 when he said that ungodly men "turn the grace of our God into licentiousness." Grace demands us to cease from sin. Q: You speak of having to obey God on the basis of "commands, examples, and necessary inferences." Where did you come up with that idea? Acts 15:6-21 shows clearly the means by which the apostles and early church sought authority for their teaching and practice when sufficient revelation had already been made. In this passage a dispute had arisen over whether the Gentiles were to be circumcised and to follow the law of Moses in order to be saved. It is interesting that the apostles do not turn to the Holy Spirit for direct revelation, instead relying on the revelation that had already been provided. So how did they go about determining the truth? Peter 15:6-11 argued the point on the basis of necessary inference. Peter first presented the pertinent facts:
With these three facts before the audience, Peter then drew the necessary conclusion: "Therefore, why do you test God by putting a yoke on the neck of the disciples...But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we (Jews) shall be saved in the same manner as they (Gentiles)."(verse 10-11). Though God had not specifically said that the Gentiles did not have to be circumcised or keep the law of Moses, Peter was able to necessarily infer that they were not under such a requirement because of the facts of how God went about saving Cornelius and his household. Of course, we might add that Peter also uses an approved example as the basis for his necessary inference. Paul and Barnabas (15:12) take up the argument on the basis of approved examples. They refer to their preaching tour among the Gentiles and how that God performed miracles and wonders through their hands as they preached the gospel without requiring circumcision or the law of Moses. The miracles and wonders God gave them as they preached placed God's approval on this method of saving Gentile people. Finally, James 15:13-21 refers to a direct precept in scripture where God plainly approved the acceptance of the Gentiles when the tabernacle of David was rebuilt. That day had come, therefore the Gentiles were to be accepted.Jesus used the method of approved example to teach in Matthew 12:1-5. He also used necessary inference in Matthew 22:41-45 when He tried to teach the people that He was both the Son of God as well as the Son of Man. Q: I may not being doing what the Bible says, but you are not suppose to judge me. I know the Bible condemns that! Any time we get a response such as this, we need to first examine our own motives and make sure we have not come across in our teaching with a self-righteous attitude. II Timothy 2:24-25 warns us to be gentle and patient when we teach, "in humility correcting those who are in opposition." However, there are also occasions when a person offers this response to a legitimate scriptural warning of disobedience before God. The Lord warned against judging one another when it is a measuring of someone by our own standards (Matthew 7:1-2). Further, we are warned against prejudicial judgment, judgment made when we do not have all the facts (John 7:24). But in this same text we are also told to "judge righteous judgment." In Philippians 1:9-10 we are told increase in "knowledge and all discernment, that you may approve the things that are excellent." Again, in I John 4:1 we are told to "test the spirits, whether they are of God; because many false prophets have gone out into the world." John continues in verse 6 telling us the standard by which we are to test: "He who knows God hears us (the apostles); he who is not of God does not hear us. By this we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error." We are not violating the Lord's prohibition against judging when we are simply teaching what God has said about what is right and wrong, moral and immoral, and discerning between a false teacher and one who speaks the truth. Q: How could a merciful God possibly cast people into hell? As a parent I could never do such a thing to my children. First of all, it is important to note that we cannot judge God based on what we think we would do in similar circumstances. Isaiah 55:8-9 states, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, nor are your ways My ways, says the Lord. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are My ways higher than your ways, and My thoughts than your thoughts." We are mere human beings and God has not placed us in a position to render punishment toward our children like He would render, nor has He made us capable of thinking in such a way toward our children. Next, we need to consider that God is not only merciful, He is just to render punishment to those who are evil. Romans 1:18 states, "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness." God's wrath toward wickedness is not a wrath as man would have, but a judicial wrath that demands justice in His spiritual government. We do not appreciate judges in our society who allow criminals to go free on a technicality or based their own personal feelings toward the criminal. Such injustice ruins our system of government. God does not allow such in His government. Romans 3:26 tells us that Christ died so that God "might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus." The death of Christ made it possible for God to be merciful without violating His own justice. Consider also Romans 11:22. Now let's turn the question around. Will a "merciful God" punish Satan forever and ever? Revelation 20:10 says He will. Satan and His angels are as much a creation of God as any of us are. If He will punish them forever, why not those of us who follow after Satan's ways? Q: Prove to me that hell is really forever. How could that possibly be? It is first important to understand that we are forever. God made us in His image and formed a spirit within us (Zechariah 12:1). We are eternal beings created for the purpose of living with God forever. Ecclesiastes 12:7 tells us that at death the body goes back to the dust, but the spirit returns to God who gave it. Luke 12:4-5 tells us that we need not fear those who can kill the body but after that have nothing more they can do. Instead we need to fear God who after He has killed, has the power to cast into hell. Jesus shows that there is a difference between the body and the spirit. The body is temporary but the spirit lives on. Since we have no end, the question is where will we spend eternity. Matthew 25:46 tells us that the righteous will go to "eternal" life but the wicked to "eternal" punishment. Jesus used the same Greek word to describe how long hell is as He did to describe how long heaven is. Both the "life" and the "punishment" are eternal. One lasts as long as the other. Mark 9:43-48 tells us the hell is a "fire that never shall be quenched--where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched." Comparing hell to the fire and maggots of the literal valley of Hinnom, Jesus said there would be no end to the fire burning or the maggot eating on the one cast there. Revelation 14:10-11 tells us that there "is no rest day or night" and the "smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever." In Revelation 20:10-15 those not found written in the book of life are cast into the same lake of fire as Satan who is tormented day and night forever and ever. Q: Do we go to heaven or hell as soon as we die? Revelation 20:13-15 tells us that on the day of judgment Death and Hades will deliver up the dead that are in them and then Death and Hades will be cast into the lake of fire along with all of those who are not found written in the book of life. From this we learn that the dead are in a place called Hades until Judgment and then raised to be cast into hell if they are not in the book of life. Therefore, a person does not go immediately into hell at death. In Luke 16:19-31 Jesus tells the story of Lazarus and the rich man and pictures both of them in Hades following death. Lazarus is being comforted in Hades while the rich man is being tormented. This fits well the Old Testament picture of Sheol (Hebrew for Hades) being a bad place for those who are wicked (Isaiah 14:11), but a good place for those who are righteous (Genesis 37:35). The same principle would hold true for heaven. We do not go to heaven as soon as we die in the sense of receiving our final reward. There still must be a resurrection when we are given a spiritual body like the Lord's (I Corinthians 15:35-50; I John 3:2; Philippians 3:20-21). In John 5:28-29 Jesus states that the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear his voice and come forth, some to a resurrection of life and some to a resurrection of condemnation. Further, Revelation 21:1-8 shows that it is not until after the day of judgment and the resurrection that we are presented to the Lord as a bride ready for her husband. Then comes the marriage of the church with Christ when he takes us to His home to live throughout eternity. Q: After we die, do we have to wait until Judgment Day before we will be with the Lord? Though we do not receive our final reward nor our resurrected bodies as soon as we die, there is a sense in which we will be with the Lord. In II Corinthians 5:6-8 Paul states that while we are at home in the body we are absent from the Lord. But we are confident that when we are absent from the body we will be present with the Lord. In Philippians 1:23 Paul speaks of his death and says that he would rather depart and be with Christ rather than stay on in the flesh. Revelation 7:13-17 pictures the saints who had gone through the great tribulation as being before the throne of God and serving Him day and night in His temple. In II Corinthians 12:1-4 Paul speaks of being caught up into the third heaven (to the Hebrews the first heaven was our immediate atmosphere, the second heaven was the universe, and the third heaven was where God dwelled) where he saw visions. He calls this third heaven Paradise, using the same term that Jesus gave for the good side of Hades when He told the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in Paradise" (Luke 23:43). When Jesus died, He descended into Hades (Acts 2:27). Thus, Paradise is the good side of Hades and the same place where Paul saw his visions. He considered this to be the third heaven where the Lord is. This is all we know. Concerning details of how we could be with the Lord without receiving our final reward, we will have to wait until that day. Q: Why can't you see that evolution is at least possible? Evolution denies known accepted laws of science that are accepted by all. R.B. Lindsay, in AMERICAN SCIENTIST, states, "there is a general natural tendency of all observed systems to go from order to disorder, reflecting dissipation of energy available for future transformation--the law of increasing entropy." Further, Isaac Asimov, in SMITHSONIAN INSTITUTE JOURNAL, states, "Another way of stating the second law then is: 'The universe is constantly getting more disorderly!' Viewed that way, we can see the second law all about us. We have to work hard to straighten a room, but left to itself it becomes a mess again very quickly and very easily. Even if we never enter it, it becomes dusty and musty. How difficult to maintain houses, and machinery, and our own bodies in perfect working order; how easy to let them deteriorate. In fact, all we have to do is nothing, and everything deteriorates, collapses, breaks down, wears out--all by itself--and that is what the second law is all about. True, and ,Hebrews 1:10-11 confirms that the earth has been growing old since God created it. But evolution theorizes the very opposite, claiming that things are going from a state of disorder to a state of order, and that such is irreversible. Julian Huxley, in his article, EVOLUTION & GENETICS, states, "Evolution in the extended sense can be defined as a directional and essentially irreversible process occurring in time, which in its course gives rise to an increase of variety and an increasingly high level of organization in its products. Our present knowledge indeed forces us to the view that the whole of reality is evolution--a single process of self-transformation. Further, of necessity, evolution must believe in millions upon millions of favorable mutations that began from nothing more than hydrogen or some other gases, which given enough time, produced people. And we are told that it is ignorant to believe in miracles! Harlow Shapley states, Some people piously proclaim, 'In the beginning God.' I say, 'In the beginning, Hydrogen.' Now how possible is that! Q: Will we know each other in heaven? Knowing each other in heaven is one of the great blessing we have to look forward to. This seems to be the whole point of Paul's discussion of sorrowing for those who have died in Christ in II Thessalonians 4:13-18. In each verse he speaks of being reunited with those who sleep in Jesus. Because of this, we need not sorrow as others who do not have such a hope and therefore we can comfort one another with these words. The Jews looked forward to being with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob and all the prophets. Therefore Jesus said that there would be weeping and gnashing of teeth when they saw these great men in the kingdom while they themselves were being cast out. Jesus then said that the Gentiles would enjoy the presence of the prophets instead (Luke 13:28-29). When Jesus met Martha after the death of her brother Lazarus, Martha expressed the hope of seeing her brother again in the resurrection. But Jesus said, "I am the resurrection," telling her that she could see her brother again immediately if He so desired (John 11:21-27). Q: What about Genesis 9:20-27? Why did Noah curse Canaan for something that Ham did? What exactly did Ham do and what was the curse? First it is important to consider all the facts involved in this story:
Fitting all this together, my conclusion is that Ham looked upon his father in lust and in some way committed a sin that would be both incestuous and homosexual and was later denounced in the Canaanites (See Leviticus 18:1-25). Q: What is the rapture and where is this found in the Bible? The word rapture comes from the phrase "caught up" in I Thessalonians 4:16. The Latin translation of the Greek word is RAPIEMUR, hence, our word "rapture." The word, therefore, does not lack biblical support, but the concepts and doctrines surrounding the word have no biblical foundation. In I Thessalonians 4 the time in which the saints are "caught up" is the same time in which the day of Lord comes as a thief in the night (I Thessalonians 5:2) and brings judgment on the wicked. In John 5:28-29 Jesus states that the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear his voice and come forth, some to a resurrection of life and some to a resurrection of condemnation. In Matthew 25:31-33 Jesus tells us that on the day of judgment all nations will be gathered before Him and He will divide them as a shepherd divides his sheep from the goats. However, in the doctrine of Premillennialism, the rapture is a temporary exodus of the saints from the earth while a great seven-year tribulation takes place on the remaining inhabitants of the earth. Following this seven year period, the saints are to return to the earth where they live for 1000 years. This contradicts I Thessalonians 4:17 where Paul tells us that we will meet the Lord in the air "and thus we shall always be with the Lord." The scriptures never have the Lord returning to the earth. In fact, Jesus claimed that He had finished the work God had given Him to do on the earth (John 17:4). Q: Isn't there suppose to be a great tribulation that is to come prior to Christ's return? In the scenario of Premillennialism, seven years prior to Christ's return, the saints will be "raptured" from the earth. During this seven year period those left on the earth will suffer the period of the great tribulation. This will cause many to repent and thereby prepare the way for the Lord's return and the beginning of the 1000 year reign of peace and prosperity on the earth. There are three times the phrase "great tribulation" is used in the scriptures: Matthew 24:21; Revelation 2:22, 7:14. Jesus' use of the phrase in Matthew specifically refers to the tribulation that took place on the city of Jerusalem in AD 70 by the Romans. The context demands this. In 24:2 Jesus had foretold the fall of Jerusalem as well as the temple. In 24:3 His disciples asked when these things would take place, what would be the sign of His coming to accomplish these things, and thus the end of the Jewish age. Jesus answers these questions by referring to Daniel's prophecy in 24:15 which specifically foretold the fall of Jerusalem/Judaism (Daniel 9:24-27). In 24:16 Jesus specifically warns that when this tribulation takes place those in Judea were to flee. Therefore this is not a tribulation that would take place on the whole world, but on those in Judea. Further, in 24:32-34, when Jesus identifies the time period when this tribulation would take place He states, "Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things are fulfilled." Therefore, that generation of people that Jesus was speaking to would not die before the great tribulation took place. Since Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 AD, Jesus prophecy was fulfilled. It is also important to not that in 24:21 Jesus said that the great tribulation that would come on Jerusalem and Judea would be the greatest the world had ever seen and there would never be another greater. The next place the phrase is used is Revelation 2:22 where Jesus warned the church of Thyatira that if the woman "Jezebel" did not repent He would cast her and those who committed adultery with her into great tribulation.. This certainly is not referring to any future tribulation on the world. The final place the phrase is used is in Revelation 7:14 where an angel tells John that the great multitude he sees in heaven are those who have come out of the great tribulation. In 6:9-11 we saw these same ones who had been killed for the word of God and the testimony which they held. Is this something that is still to happen or has it already been fulfilled? Revelation 1:1-3 gives us the context of the book. First, these were things that "must shortly come to pass...for the time is near." To believe that the events of this book have not yet happened is to not understand the very first verse of the book. Further, we are told that the message was sent from Christ and "signified" by an angel to John. The word "signified" means to send a message by the use of signs. Thus, the message of the book of Revelation was not revealed in literal language, but in signs and symbols. A person who either attempts to understand Revelation as literal or believes that the message of the book has not yet been fulfilled is disregarding the very first verse of the book. Now, what was the setting of Revelation? It was written about 96 AD during the beginning of the period of Roman persecution against Christians. The tribulation spoken of in the book refers to those Christians who were suffering under the Roman oppression. To further confirm this, Revelation 17:18 tells us that the woman (who was responsible for the blood of the saints, 17:6) is that "great city which reigns over the kings of the earth." This could be none other than Rome. There certainly may be another great tribulation that comes upon Christians or on the world, but the scriptures do not reveal this to us. As for a period in which the world suffers while the saints are in heaven for a brief seven year period, there is no scriptural foundation. Q: Isn't there suppose to be a 1000 year reign of peace and prosperity with Christ reigning on a throne in Jerusalem? The only place in Bible where there is mention of a 1000 year reign is Revelation 20:1-6. First, remember what we spoke of in the previous question concerning the context of the book of Revelation. The message was revealed in signs and symbols and the fulfillment would come to pass shortly after the revealing of the book. Now to Revelation 20. There are at least seven things that are not mentioned in Revelation 20 that are the key tenets of the Premillennial view of the 1000 year reign:
How can a theory be true when it rests on a text in which not one of its peculiar tenets can be found? This text speaks of the cause of the saints who were martyred (6:9-11) being resurrected while Satan's power is restricted so that he can no longer "deceive the nations" into wholesale persecution of the saints as he had done during the Roman persecution . I Corinthians 15:20-28 confirms the absence of a literal 1000 year reign on the earth.
Q: I know that some teach that only 144,000 are going to heaven and the rest will stay on the earth. Is this true? There are two places in the scriptures where there is mention of 144,000. The first is in Revelation 7 where 144,000 were sealed so that they would not be harmed by the judgments God was bringing on the earth during the Roman persecution. The second is in Revelation 14 where the 144,000 are standing victoriously on Mt. Zion as an ally to Christ. As we have already noted in previous answers, Revelation was written in signs and symbols (Revelation 1:1). The symbolic nature of the book is especially seen in its numbers. Revelation 2:10 has the church at Smyrna suffering tribulation 10 days and then told to be faithful unto death. Ten days is obviously symbolic just as the seven heads and ten horns on the Dragon or the Gentiles tread down the holy city for "42 months." In context, the number 144,000 is symbolic of the saved on earth. (You may remember that the Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the 144,000 are the only ones going to heaven. Note the contrast in Revelation 7 between the 144,000 who are sealed on earth (v. 1-8), and the great multitude who are before the throne in heaven (v. 9-13). To be consistent, consider the interpretation of the 144,000 if we understand this number to be literal:
Q: Explain the doctrine of Dispensational Premillennialism. Dispensational Premillennialism is the belief that in every "dispensation" God has desired to establish and earthly kingdom. The position is that God tried with Adam and Eve, with the patriarchs, and with Moses and Israel, each time failing to bring about a universal world kingdom of peace and service to God. God then prophesied that He would establish this kingdom with His Son. Even Christ, when He first began His ministry predicted the kingdom was at hand. However, as time passed Jesus realized that the Jews were going to reject Him so the kingdom promises were suspended as the hope of the kingdom faded. The rejection of Christ and His death was not really planned by God. Therefore, God substituted the "church age" for the establishment of the kingdom until the time was more favorable. According to this position, we are now coming to the end of the church age. Very soon, seven years before Christ's return and the start of His 1000 year reign on earth, all Christians will suddenly be "raptured" up to heaven. During that seven years a great tribulation will take place on the earth. At the end of the tribulation, Satan will be bound, Christ will return and reign on a literal throne in Jerusalem after his enemies are destroyed, all the Jews will be converted and be given positions of authority, the Gentiles will serve the Jews, there will be 1000 years of peace and prosperity with no wicked on the earth, and the entire Jewish system with all its sacrifices will be instituted again. At the end of the thousand years, Satan will be loosed and allowed to deceive the nations again. Christ will gather His armies and destroy these sinners casting Satan and his following into the lake of fire. The righteous will then be taken to the new heaven and new earth (for some this is just a resurfaced earth, for others it is heaven itself). Q: What are the scriptures that would prove that the Lord's kingdom is not a physical kingdom but a spiritual?
Q: Explain key "premillennial passages" such as Daniel 2:36-45 and Daniel 9:24-27. Daniel 2:36-45 is a prophecy of the four world kingdoms that would rule the earth from the time of Babylon. These kingdoms would be Babylonian, Medo-Persian, Greek, and Roman. The prophecy states that during the days of the Roman empire God would establish His kingdom which would bring all other physical kingdoms to an end. Therefore, the kingdom of God had to be established during the Roman Empire. To teach that God is going to somehow bring the Roman Empire back together again in the form of the European Common Market or some other organization is a plain violation of the context and abuses prophecy. Daniel 9:24-27 is a prophecy concerning the time between the rebuilding of Jerusalem and the temple which began in 536 BC and the time when Jerusalem would be destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. "Seventy weeks" is a figurative period of time representing the final days of the Jewish system and nation. The "abomination that makes desolate" is clearly spoken of by Jesus (Matthew 24:15; Luke 21:20) as the Roman armies surrounding Jerusalem. Premillennialist try to turn this prophecy into a "end-time" prophecy with the "great tribulation" taking place seven years before Christ's return for the thousand year reign. Of course they must place a "gap of time" in which there was a "two thousand year gap in prophecy" to accommodate the fulfillment of this text. Q: I believe that the homosexuality condemned in the Bible is only of the type condemned in Sodom and Gomorrah where it was practiced with multiple partners. When it is monogamous it is not sinful. Nothing in the scriptures indicates that homosexuality practiced with one partner is any different than when it is practiced with multiple partners. To believe such one would need to show scriptural proof that God has authorized two people of the same sex to be physically intimate. We must have authority for what we do. God gives authority for a man and a woman to marry and become one flesh (Genesis 2:24), but where is the authority for sexual relations under any other circumstance? God said He made them male and female and that a man should leave father and mother and cleave to his wife. Sometimes the story of David and Jonathan is given as authority for a homosexual relationship with an appeal being made to II Samuel 1:26 where David says, "Your love to me was wonderful, surpassing the love of women." I Samuel 18:1 states, "...the soul of Jonathan was knit to the soul of David, and Jonathan loved him as his own soul." There is nothing in these words that suggest that David had a homosexual relationship with Jonathan any more than when the scripture says that Jesus loved the apostle John (John 21:20). A person who would conclude such is only trying to justify their unclean mind. Q: After death, will we be conscious? Will we be conscious of anything that is going on in the world? In Jesus story of Lazarus and the rich man (Luke 16:19-31) He certainly taught that there was consciousness after death. Lazarus was comforted, while the rich man was tormented. In Matthew 22:23-33 when Jesus taught the Sadducees about the resurrection, He quoted Exodus 3:6, "I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob." Jesus then said, "God is not the God of the dead, but of the living." Jesus clearly taught that the dead were living and conscious. Remember that in Luke 9:28-36 Moses and Elijah appeared with Jesus when he was transfigured and even spoke with Him concerning His upcoming death. Moses and Elijah were certainly conscious though they had been dead for up to 1500 years. In II Samuel 12:23 when David's first child by Bathsheba had died, David, in expressing his hope of seeing the child again said, "I shall go to him, but he shall not return to me." On the other hand, Ecclesiastes 9:4-6 seems to indicate that there is no knowledge of what is going on in this life after one is dead. In I Samuel 28:14-15, when Saul used a witch to call up Samuel from the dead, Samuel seemed angry saying, "Why have you disturbed me by bringing me up?" Samuel indicates that he was not aware of Saul's recent troubles and chastises him for calling him up when the Lord had departed from him. Q: Jesus said in Matthew 5:17-19 that He did not come to destroy the law. In fact, He said that anyone who broke the least of these commandments would be called least in the kingdom of heaven. This text is often used to attempt to prove that the ten commandments are still in force today. But actually the text "proves too much." If it proves that the ten commandments are still in force, it also proves that the "law and prophets" are still in force today. In fact, the text proves neither. Of the word "destroy" Thayer says it means, to overthrow i.e. render vain, deprive of success, bring to naught, to deprive of force, annul, abrogate, discard. Jesus did not come to destroy the impact and purpose of the Law and the prophets, but to fulfill their purpose. Notice that Jesus does say that once the Law and prophets were fulfilled, they would pass away. Even the passing away of the heaven and earth would not stop the fulfilling of every part of the law. In Luke 24:44, Jesus said that all things written of Him in the Law of Moses, the prophets, and the Psalms must be fulfilled. Once fulfilled, the Law and the prophets were no longer in force. Romans 10:4 states the same principle when it says, "Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes." Christ has brought the law to its natural completion by bringing all men to righteousness. Q: Homosexuality is only condemned in the Bible when it is practiced by heterosexuals. As we have noticed from the texts cited in the previous questions, God condemns homosexuality. He does so unconditionally. There is absolutely no reference to the type of person who would practice this sin, only that it is sin when practiced. In I Corinthians 6:9-10, some of the Christians at Corinth "were" homosexuals, but Paul said those who practiced this would not inherit the kingdom of God. Leviticus 18:22 simply states, "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination." In fact, 18:23 states, "Nor shall you mate with any beast, to defile yourself with it. Nor shall any woman stand before a beast to mate with it. It is perversion." Shall we argue that if a person is born with the urge to mate with beasts that this would be acceptable to God? No, God's prohibitions of adultery, fornication, homosexuality, and bestiality are wrong no matter who commits them, no matter their background or their orientation. The burden of proof lies on the shoulders of the person who believes the above statement. What passage gives authority for homosexuality to be practiced under any circumstances? Q: Is it necessary to be a member of a local church in order to be saved? To answer this question we must first note that it is possible to be in a saved condition without being a member of any local church. When Philip baptized the eunuch (Acts 8), he was saved but not a member of any local church. When Paul first left Damascus after his conversion and came to Jerusalem he was refused membership at Jerusalem for a short time (Acts 9). Though saved, he was not a member of any local church during that period. Does this mean the Lord doesn't care whether we are a member of a local church or not? No. Everywhere Paul went and taught the gospel a local church was established. When Paul came to an area where a church already existed, he attempted to join with that group. Paul wrote letters to local churches as did Jesus in the book of Revelation. In Revelation 1 Jesus is pictured as standing in the midst of the local churches of Asia and holding their destiny in His hand, as well as threatening to remove their candlestick (remove them as one of His churches) when they would not obey Him. As mentioned under the previous question, there are certain things we must do collectively. Ephesians 4:11-16; Romans 12:3-9; I Corinthians 12:12-27 are all texts telling us of the importance of our place in a local body of Christians. To not be a part of a local church when possible, is sinning. Q: Do I have to attend every service? Aren't Sunday's the only requirement by the Lord? Partaking of the Lord's Supper as well as giving are requirements that can only be done on Sunday, but these are not the only requirements of Christians who are a part of a local body. Read carefully Ephesians 4:7-16. Notice all the things that God expects a local church to accomplish:
Now, can all of this be accomplished by attending a one hour worship period on Sunday? Impossible. God has given the local church a great job to do which cannot be accomplished if individual Christians treat the local church as something they "go to" instead of a functioning unit they are a part of. Hebrews 10:24-25 does not warn us of neglecting the assembly, but the assembling of the saints. The reason for the warning against such neglect is that we all need to stir up one another to love and good works so that we do not slip away as the Hebrew brethren were. Each member needs to both stimulate others as well as be stimulated himself to stay strong in the Lord. God did not tell us how many times to assemble, but we are to assemble enough to accomplish these goals He gave us. Certainly, an hour a week will not suffice. Q: Is it scriptural for the church to give money to people who are in need who are not Christians? The easiest way to answer this question is to examine the practice of the early church. When early churches used their money for benevolence, did they also include needy unbelievers? First, it is important to clarify the question. There is no doubt that individual Christians, according to their ability, were commanded to do benevolent deeds for unbelievers. In James 1:27, James admonished the brethren to "visit the fatherless and widows in the affliction..." Also, in Galatians 6:10, Paul told the brethren to "do good to all men, especially the household of faith." In context, neither of these passages were commands for church action since all the related commands in the surrounding text can only be fulfilled by individual action. Now let us consider collective action by a local church. In Acts 2:44-45 and 4:32-35 we note that during a time of great need it was believers who had all things common and were "distributing to each as anyone had need." Could this possibly have included unbelievers? In Acts 3:6, we have a lame man begging alms from Peter and John. Though we know that Peter and John with the other apostles had control of the money that was being collected by the church for those in need (4:35,37), Peter said, "Silver and gold I do not have, but what I have, I give you...rise up and walk." Peter is claiming not to have any personal money that he could offer this |